Aristotle accepted the doctrine that a difference in role or pursuit be tied to a relevant difference in nature and at the same time to reassert the claim of Gorgias that the virtues of women are different from those of free men because their activities are different. Barnes, p. 135 Thus Aristotle creates a political and psychological reason for explaining the differences between men and women. "In comparison with man"s bodily condition the bodily condition of women is one of weakness, and his comparative weakness points toward a retiring domestic role within the home." Barnes, p.139 Furthermore, Aristotle argues that...
is not sordid." A virtuous female must do the utmost to present a presentable physical figure; she must also delight in hard work and work hard.

We know that Aristotle is one of the most influential thinkers of our modern though. We can see this reflected on the fact that what he holds the virtues of women to be are what the normative status quo of women is seen. Thus we need to see that after 2,500 years many of the perspectives remain the same. Thus it makes me question how much progress has really been done.